How to use these questions
Answer each question before revealing the explanation below it — resist the urge to peek. These 15 questions are drawn from all five N10-009 domains, weighted roughly to their real exam proportions. For the full exam-format breakdown, see the Network+ Exam Guide 2026. For a structured plan to close any gaps these questions reveal, see the 8-week study plan.
The 15 questions
A network uses the subnet 10.0.5.0/28. How many usable host addresses does this subnet support?
- A.16
- B.14Correct
- C.30
- D.32
Explanation
A /28 has 4 host bits (32 − 28 = 4), giving 2^4 = 16 total addresses. Subtract 2 for the network address (10.0.5.0) and broadcast address (10.0.5.15), leaving 14 usable hosts. Option A forgets to subtract the network and broadcast addresses; option C is the usable-host count for a /27.
A network administrator needs an IPv6 address type that is automatically assigned to every interface and never leaves the local network segment. Which type is this?
- A.Global unicast
- B.Unique local
- C.Link-localCorrect
- D.Multicast
Explanation
Link-local addresses (fe80::/10) are automatically assigned to every IPv6 interface and are never routed beyond the local segment — used for functions like neighbor discovery. Global unicast (A) is the internet-routable equivalent of a public IPv4 address. Unique local (B, fc00::/7) is the private-range equivalent but can still route within an organization’s internal network.
Which cloud deployment model combines on-premises infrastructure with a public cloud provider, allowing workloads to move between the two?
- A.Community cloud
- B.Hybrid cloudCorrect
- C.Private cloud
- D.Multi-cloud
Explanation
Hybrid cloud specifically describes the combination of on-premises (or private cloud) infrastructure with public cloud resources, with workloads able to move between them. Multi-cloud (D) refers to using multiple public cloud providers, not a mix of on-prem and cloud. Community cloud (A) is shared infrastructure among organizations with common concerns, unrelated to this scenario.
A switch port is configured as a trunk carrying VLANs 10, 20, and 30. Untagged frames on this trunk are assigned to which VLAN by default?
- A.VLAN 1 unless a different native VLAN is configuredCorrect
- B.VLAN 10 automatically
- C.No VLAN — untagged frames are dropped
- D.The management VLAN
Explanation
Untagged frames on an 802.1Q trunk are assigned to the native VLAN, which defaults to VLAN 1 unless explicitly reconfigured to a different VLAN. This is also a security consideration — leaving the native VLAN at the default is a common VLAN-hopping attack vector, which is why best practice is to change it.
A technician is running a 90-meter cable run between a switch and a workstation and needs to guarantee 10 Gbps throughput for the full distance. Which cable type should be used?
- A.Cat5e
- B.Cat6
- C.Cat6aCorrect
- D.Coaxial RG-6
Explanation
Cat6a supports 10 Gbps at the full 100-meter maximum distance. Cat6 (B) only supports 10 Gbps up to about 55 meters — at 90 meters it would drop to 1 Gbps. Cat5e (A) tops out at 1 Gbps regardless of distance.
Which wireless standard introduced the 6 GHz frequency band, offering more non-overlapping channels and less interference from legacy devices?
- A.802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5)
- B.802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6)
- C.Wi-Fi 6ECorrect
- D.802.11n (Wi-Fi 4)
Explanation
Wi-Fi 6E extends the 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) standard into the 6 GHz band specifically. Wi-Fi 6 itself (B) operates on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz only — the 6 GHz extension is what earns the "E" designation. Wi-Fi 5 (A) is 5 GHz only and predates OFDMA and other Wi-Fi 6 efficiency features.
A company’s disaster recovery plan states that after an outage, no more than 4 hours of data can be lost. Which metric does this describe?
- A.Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
- B.Recovery Point Objective (RPO)Correct
- C.Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
- D.Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)
Explanation
This describes Recovery Point Objective (RPO) — the maximum acceptable amount of data loss, measured in time since the last good backup. Recovery Time Objective (A) measures how long the system can be down before it must be restored, a different axis entirely (time-to-restore vs. data-loss tolerance).
A network engineer wants to combine four physical switch ports into a single logical link for both increased bandwidth and redundancy. Which technology accomplishes this?
- A.VRRP
- B.Link Aggregation (LACP)Correct
- C.Spanning Tree Protocol
- D.VLAN trunking
Explanation
Link Aggregation, commonly implemented via LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol), bundles multiple physical ports into one logical link, adding both bandwidth and failover redundancy. VRRP (A) provides gateway redundancy at Layer 3, not port bundling. Spanning Tree (C) prevents Layer 2 loops but does not combine links into one logical channel.
Which monitoring protocol is specifically designed to export detailed traffic flow data (source/destination, ports, byte counts) for analyzing bandwidth usage patterns, distinct from simple device health polling?
- A.SNMP
- B.NetFlowCorrect
- C.Syslog
- D.ICMP
Explanation
NetFlow (and its open equivalent sFlow) exports detailed traffic-flow records — source/destination IP, ports, protocol, byte counts — purpose-built for bandwidth and traffic-pattern analysis. SNMP (A) polls device health metrics like CPU and interface status, not flow-level traffic detail. Syslog (C) collects event and error log messages, not traffic flow data.
An attacker floods a switch with frames containing forged source MAC addresses, filling the switch’s MAC address table until it starts broadcasting all traffic to every port. What is this attack called?
- A.ARP spoofing
- B.MAC floodingCorrect
- C.VLAN hopping
- D.DNS poisoning
Explanation
MAC flooding overwhelms a switch’s finite MAC address table with forged entries, forcing the switch into "fail-open" behavior where it floods frames to every port like a hub — letting the attacker see traffic not normally destined for their port. ARP spoofing (A) forges ARP replies to redirect traffic, a related but distinct Layer 2 attack.
A company wants to implement a security model where every access request is verified regardless of whether it originates inside or outside the corporate network, with no implicit trust granted based on network location. Which model does this describe?
- A.Defense in depth
- B.Zero TrustCorrect
- C.Perimeter security
- D.Role-based access control (RBAC)
Explanation
Zero Trust is defined by continuous verification and "never trust, always verify" — access is never granted based on network location alone, even for traffic already inside the corporate network. Perimeter security (C) is the older model Zero Trust replaces, which grants implicit trust to anything already inside the network boundary.
Which authentication framework is commonly paired with 802.1X port-based access control and a RADIUS server to authenticate devices before granting network access?
- A.EAPCorrect
- B.IPsec
- C.SASE
- D.WPA3
Explanation
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol), in variants like EAP-TLS or PEAP, is the authentication framework used within 802.1X port-based access control, typically validated against a RADIUS server. IPsec (B) secures data in transit for VPNs, a different layer of the security stack. WPA3 (D) is a wireless encryption standard, not the authentication framework itself.
Following CompTIA’s troubleshooting methodology, after testing a theory of probable cause and confirming it is correct, what is the very next step?
- A.Document findings and lessons learned
- B.Establish a plan of action to resolve the problemCorrect
- C.Verify full system functionality
- D.Escalate to a senior engineer
Explanation
CompTIA’s 7-step methodology runs: identify the problem → establish a theory → test the theory → establish a plan of action → implement the solution → verify functionality → document. After confirming the theory, the next step is establishing a plan of action, not jumping straight to verification or documentation, which come later in the sequence.
A technician needs to determine which router hop along a path to a remote server is introducing high latency. Which command-line tool is purpose-built for this?
- A.ping
- B.traceroute / tracertCorrect
- C.nslookup
- D.arp
Explanation
traceroute (tracert on Windows) reports the round-trip time at each hop along the path to a destination, making it the right tool for isolating where latency is introduced. ping (A) confirms basic end-to-end reachability and round-trip time but does not break the path down hop by hop.
Two hosts on the same network segment are unable to reach each other, and both appear to have the same IP address assigned. Which tool would most directly confirm a duplicate IP address conflict?
- A.netstat
- B.A cable tester
- C.arp (checking the IP-to-MAC mapping table)Correct
- D.A tone generator and probe
Explanation
Checking the arp table reveals whether two different MAC addresses are mapping to the same IP address across the network, directly confirming a duplicate IP conflict. A cable tester (B) and tone generator/probe (D) are physical-layer tools for verifying cable continuity and tracing runs, not for diagnosing IP-layer conflicts.
Scoring guide
| Score | What it suggests |
|---|---|
| 13-15 correct | You are likely close to exam-ready. Move on to full-length timed mocks and PBQ lab practice. |
| 10-12 correct | Solid foundation with specific gaps. Review the domains you missed and drill those. |
| Under 10 correct | Plan for another 2-3 weeks of structured study, especially on subnetting, before your next checkpoint. |
What to do next
These 15 questions are a sample. The full CertSharp Network+ bank has 500 questions across all five domains, with an explanation on every one — enough depth to build real pattern recognition rather than memorizing 15 specific answers. Try 30 more free questions, or read the Network+ cheat sheet for a fast final review.
Frequently asked questions
Are these real Network+ exam questions?
No. These are original practice questions written to mirror the style, difficulty, and domain weighting of the real N10-009 exam, mapped to CompTIA’s published exam objectives. CompTIA does not release retired exam questions, and using leaked or braindump content violates the CompTIA certification agreement.
How representative are these of the real exam difficulty?
These 15 sample questions span the range you will see: subnetting math, protocol and port recall, scenario-based troubleshooting, and security concept questions. The full 500-question CertSharp bank is calibrated slightly above real exam difficulty, so consistent 78%+ performance there predicts a comfortable pass.
Why aren’t there any performance-based questions (PBQs) here?
PBQs require interactive simulation (dragging cables, labeling diagrams) that does not translate to a static article format. This set focuses on the multiple-choice and multiple-response content, which is the majority of the exam. For PBQ practice, use a lab tool like Packet Tracer alongside the CertSharp question bank.
Which domain should I focus my practice on most?
Weight your practice roughly to the exam: Domain 1 (Networking Concepts, 23%) and Domain 5 (Network Troubleshooting, 21%) should get the most rotation, followed closely by Domain 4 (Network Security, 20%) — together these three domains are 64% of the scored content.
Get 30 free questions right now
No signup for the first 30. Full 500-question bank is $11.99 lifetime, or $9.99/month Pro unlocks Network+ plus every other CertSharp certification.